What does all this mean and why not refer to spine surgery. Was referred for epidural block. Numbness in hands, pain in shoulders, tingling in shoulder blade: Hyperreflex on left side. MRI done last week:
FINDINGS: The cervical lordosis is not present. Unfortunately there
is motion artifact.
The C2-3 disc space is unremarkable.
At C3-4 there is no significant encroachment of the neural elements.
At C4-5 the disc space is narrowed. The ventral cord is flattened.
There is a broad disc/osteophyte that is in apposition to the cord
with narrowing of the right neural foramina. This is not greatly
changed from the prior examination. There is mild canal stenosis.
At C5-6 there also is a broad disc/osteophyte flattening the ventral
cord and narrowing the right neural foramina.
At C6-7 there is a new central and right paracentral herniation noted
not in apposition to the cord.
The craniocervical junction is normal. The cord intensity is normal.
IMPRESSION: There is significant stable degenerative change at C4-5
and C5-6 with a new herniation at C6-7 which is right and paracentral
and not in apposition to the cord. See above for individual disc
spaces. The cervical lordosis remains absent. The C6-7 herniation is
not clearly identified on the previous study.
From Doctor July 2012:
The MRI of the thoracic spine is normal.
The MRI of the cervical spine (neck) shows 2 disc protrusions (at the C4-5 and C5-6 level) which look like they are putting some pressure on the spinal cord, especially at C5-6, where there is a slight amount of swelling in the spinal cord.
This sounds bad but actually the images don't look that bad when I viewed them.
Any help would be greatly appreciated!