I am new to this forum. I have spent 2 years trying to "fix" my back.
I have just had a sgittal T1 mri and I wonder if anyone can make sense of what it says.
I am 50. I have had 2 car accidents. One in 1988 (7 months pregnant) and one in 1999. I had whiplash both times.
I have had back flares off and on since 1999, but I seemed to get better.
I broke my left 5th metatarsal in Aug 2006 which put me on crutches/walking cast for 18wks, and I have just not got back to my life since then.
Here is what the MRI says:
Findings: Normal craniocervial junction. Vertebral body heights are maintained with no obvious malalignment. There is straightening of the ususal cervical lordosis and throacic kyphosis. Changes of degenerative spondylosis are present involving particularly the c5-6,c6-7 and L1-2 invtervebral discs. There are small posterior disc protrusions at multiple throacic levels that do not appear to significantly compromise the canal. At least mild posterior disc psteophyte complex is further noted at c4-5, c5-6 and c6-7. Again, the canal does not appear frankly stenotic. Mild posterior annular bulging is further noted at L1-2.
No difinite focal inflammatory signal change is seen in the visualized axial skeleton.Both sacroiliac joints show some subchondral sclerosis but appear patent with no evidence of subchondral marrow edema or further significant inflammatory signal alteration. No erosions.
I am on celebrex, and pain meds. I have had a lot of cortisone shots.
What is my problem and how do I fix it?
Sitting is terrible. I limp and feel like I have to manually lift my feet sometimes. My neck is a real problem. It hurts and radiates down my left arm. I wake up in the night in pain.
I have not heard of DDD straightening the spine before or this subchondral sclerosis???
Does anyone know what this stuff means?
Thank-you for your help