I had my L5-S1 laminotomy-discectomy 2 weeks ago today. I'm doing very well.
When I read my MRI results and the OP notes, I wondered why only the bulging disc at L5-S1 was taken care of, when I have bulging discs at L4-L5 and L3-L4 as well. Arthritis is causing the canal for the nerve root to narrow at L4-L5; wouldn't it have made sense to do something with that bulging disc and the one higher while the neurosurgeon was "in there" fixing the one that held my sciatic nerve hostage?
Just wondering if this is odd or if it's SOP.
Thanks for reading!