Welcome, Friend!

It looks like you're new here. If you want to get involved, click one of these buttons!


Quick Start Forum Video Tutorial


In this Discussion

Protect anonymity
We strongly suggest that members do not include their email addresses. Once that is published , your email address is available to anyone on the internet , including hackers.

All discussions and comments that contain an external URL will be automatically moved to the spam queue. No external URL pointing to a medical web site is permitted. Forum rules also indicate that you need prior moderator approval. If you are going to post an external URL, contact one of the moderators to get their approval.
There are no medical professionals on this forum side of the site. Therefore, no one is capable or permitted to provide any type of medical advice.
This includes any analysis, interpretation, or advice based on any diagnostic test

The main site has all the formal medical articles and videos for you to research on.

Interpreting MRI report

I'm 24 years old; my father, my sister, and myself have been diagnosed w/ degenerative disc disease and bulging discs in the lower back (all diagnosed at different times, but the onset of our symptoms began in early 20s.

I had an MRI last summer, and was wondering if someone could interpret the language in the report.
The header/bold sections are: HISTORY, COMPARISON, TECHNIQUE, & FINDINGS.
Under findings, it reports on "general"- which says lumbar alignment normal, no fractures, etc. Then, it says L1-2 thru L4-5 are unremarkable. Finally, the L5-S1 reports that "previously reported disc herniation has increased substantially in volume compared to prior study (MRI taken about 8 yrs ago). This is a broad-based central and right paracentral protrusion asymmetrically affecting the right S1 root.

So, I get that there is a herniation in this area, but where is this area? And is one type of protrusion/herniation more significant or painful than another?
Laura P. Stafford
Sign In or Register to comment.