I am nine months out from a four level ACDF, and my surgeon has stated that I am not completely fused at any level. My question is, is there a difference in failure to fuse and pseudoarthtosis? Latest lateral/flexion X-ray report states "no current indication of calcification or new bone formation at any of the intervening disc space levels." But also that there is moderate limitation of both flexion and extension without widening of any of the intervening disc spaces.
So, I am not asking for medical advice...just clarification if there is a difference in the two terms? No widening is good right? A four level posterior revision has been suggested and I just truly want to understand my options. Thanks for any input.